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Michael's avatar

Howdy,

I have not gotten far into this article, but I would like to flag that this paragraph is a pretty big misrepresentation of theistic philosophers.

“Another example is the constant insistence by theistic philosophers that dress up the idea (in some capacity) that we need an external agent (God) to “give” us morality, when there is abundant literature of how moral instincts in humans are evolved, observable in babies, and yes, in non-believers and non-religious societies.”

There are two broad categories of moral arguments put forth by apologists which could match what you are describing. (I’m presuming you definitely aren’t referring to the much more heavily written upon moral argument found in Kant)

The first is Craig’s moral argument. In every rendition of his argument, down to his 5 minute videos, Craig explicitly distinguishes between a need for God in morality and a need for Belief in God for morality. His argument is about moral ontology and says nothing of moral epistemology. Thus, your criticism cannot apply to this argument.

The second is the moral knowledge argument, which is at least about moral epistemology. Nonetheless, this argument also asserts that all humans have moral knowledge. It also affirms that they gained this knowledge through the accepted evolutionary processes. What they deny is only that a naturalist can say that this process would select for the objectively correct moral beliefs. This argument was first put forth by naturalist anti-realists, such as Sharon Street in this enormously influential paper (for a philosophy paper). Your claim that “but we did evolve true moral beliefs” would be question-begging in reply to this argument.

I can happily point you towards resources that respond to the actual moral arguments made by theists if you so choose. 😁

Plasma Bloggin''s avatar

I liked the beginning of this essay when you made more general points about apologists, but I found the part specifically addressing Adelstein on the nature of probabilistic reasoning to be bad. I generally think objections to the fine tuning argument on the basis that we don't know the probabilities involved to be the worst ones. The fine-tuning argument doesn't need you to know the exact probability of fine-tuning, just that the probability given naturalism is extremely low, and proponents give arguments as to why the probability is low. You could object to this by arguing that the probability isn't actually as low as they think, but the objection that it's impossible to assign any probability at all, even a rough approximation, is silly and would rule out basically all ordinary reasoning. Some of the objections you made assume that in order to have a probability of fine-tuning at all, you need to have some physical process that could set the constants in certain ways and had a certain probability of setting them in each way (for example, the quote complaining that there's no roulette wheel makes this assumption). But this is absolutely false - if it was true, we couldn't assign any probability, even a rough estimate, to any hypothesis about physics being true, since after all, whatever the most fundamental laws of physics are, there's no process that causes them to be what they are and could have made them behave differently (otherwise, the laws that govern that process would be the true fundamental laws) - they just are. So this objection would imply that we can never judge one hypothesis about the nature of reality or fundamental laws as more plausible than others. Every time we do an experiment in physics, we are really just obtaining evidence to update our probabilities that the laws of physics work a certain way. So if we had pure, Knightian uncertainty, we wouldn't even be able to do physics.

The point about possibility is conflating between different types of possibility. On the one hand, there's physical possibility, which says that something could have been a certain way without changing the laws of physics. That's obviously not relevant to the fine tuning argument, since it's about the probability of having different laws of physics. And it's not relevant to probability assignments over various hypotheses either: Unless we're absolutely certain of the true laws of physics, we can obviously assign nonzero probability to scenarios with differing laws of physics, and, as explained in the previous paragraph, we have to do that in order to even do physics. The FTA is based on the low prior probability of fine-tuning, and there are no a priori reasons to rule out different values.

The form of possibility that actually matters to probability assignments over possible laws of physics is metaphysical possibility, which just means "any way the world could be". If something is metaphysically impossible, so that there aren't even any hypothetical scenarios in which it's true (e.g., a logical contradiction), then sure, you can assign probability zero to it to a first approximation (you actually shouldn't do it even then, unless you're 100% certain it's metaphysically impossible). But different values of the constants are definitely metaphysically possible - the only people who dispute this are necessitarians, but necessitarianism also completely prevents you from making the "metaphysically impossible -> 0 probability" inference, so even their objections to this point aren't relevant. And metaphysical possibility is firmly within the realm of philosophy, so the charge of philosophism doesn't apply here as it does to the Kalam argument or Thomistic metaphysics (both of which it definitely does apply to).

A lot of objections to the specific points he's making seem to misunderstand his points. His thought experiment about birth control is not a model of how the world works - it's a hypothetical scenario used to illustrate a point about probability. Objecting that the assumptions made in the thought experiment aren't true in real life misses the point. Also, it's obviously true even in real life that someone's existence is evidence that their parents have had sex without birth control. I'm not sure why you deny this is the case (evidence in favor of =/= 100% proof, so the fact that some people are conceived despite their parents using birth control or without their parents having sex is not an objection to this point).

Similarly, your objections to his use of the principle of indifference are strawmen. No one thinks that we should assign the same prior probability to, "It's Monday," and, "It’s not Monday." All formulations of the principle of indifference include some qualifier stating that there are no relevant differences between the options or that they are all "the same" in some way, which is not true in the case of Monday vs. not Monday. Maybe you think such qualifiers are too vague, fair enough, but you yourself used the principle of indifference when you claimed that actually the probability of it being Monday should be 14%. You understand that there's no reason to consider any day more likely than any other a priori, and so you assign the same probability to each. Similarly, in the election example, you shouldn't apply the principle of indifference because you have information about the candidate's positions, polling data, etc., that might make you think one candidate is more likely to win than the other. The principle of indifference does not deny that you should update your probability based on this evidence - that would be crazy. It would only apply in the election example if you knew nothing at all about the candidates, in which case assigning them an equal probability of winning sounds pretty reasonable. The principle of indifference is really just a statement of the fact that you should not arbitrarily consider one possibility more likely than other unless there is some reason to think it is. Also, note that the quote from Adelstein is actually making a claim much weaker than the principle of indifference. All that's required for his quote to be true is that the probability of the options don't differ wildly from each other, nothing that they're all exactly equal.

I'm not really sure what you're trying to say in the section on agnosticism. Agnosticism isn't some third possibility aside from theism and atheism, so there is no "probability of agnosticism." Agnosticism is a description of someone's state of belief or knowledge, not of how the external world actually is. By definition, either theism or atheism is true, and agnosticism is just the position that we don't know which, or a personal suspension of judgement. And I don't think Bentham's Bulldog has ever said that any theory is better than agnosticism. He just thinks the evidence for God us good enough to motivate belief.

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